40 year old female with depressed mood – Psychiatry MCQ

40 year old female came to the OPD with complaints of with depressed mood, insomnia, loss of appetite and lack of interest in surroundings for the past 1 year. These symptoms appeared after loss in a business deal 1 year ago. Which is correct regarding the management?
A. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRI’s) are the most effective drugs
B. Antidepressants should be given based on the side effect profile
C. No treatment is required as it is due to loss in a business deal
D. Combination therapy with 2 or more antidepressants

Correct answer : B. Antidepressants should be given based on the side effect profile

The history is characteristic of depressive disorder. Antidepressant drugs are to be given. But there are no ideal antidepressants. The treatment should be based on the side effect profile of the drugs.

 

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